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1. What is the name of the collection of fibres that carries visual impulses from the retina?
2. What is the name of the deep open spaces in the surface tissue around the collarette of the iris?
3. Macular degeneration is characterized by a loss of which area of vision?
4. What is the name of the layer of the retina that follows the pigment epithelial layer and contains the cones and rods?
5. What is the pathological condition that causes damage to the optic nerve and retinal fibres through increased ocular pressure?
6. A patient picks up new eyeglasses and is assessed at a visual acuity of 20/20 OU. One week later the patient returns complaining of blurred vision. How should the optician proceed?
7. Which of the following is an example of objective information about a patient gathered by an optician?
8. If left untreated, what can anisometropia cause in young children?
9. When duplicating old eyeglasses, the optician finds that the old optical centres differ from the patient’s current pupillary distance. The optician does not have access to the original Rx and the patient refuses to get a new one. How should the optician proceed?
10. During a tear film breakup test, dry spots appear in less than 10 seconds. This indicates that the eye is which of the following?
11. What is the magnification of a +4.00 D lens?
12. Low-vision aids include high-powered plus lenses and telescopes with high magnification.
13. Lenses for wraparound frames require different prism adjustments than lenses for non-wraparound frames, especially at higher prescriptions.
14. Where is minimum thickness measured on a minus lens?
15. Which type of sunglass lens is most recommended for pilots?
16. What type of lenses are best for a patient with an Rx of −0.75 OU who chose an 8 base wrapped sunglasses frame?
17. An aspheric lens will reduce the magnification effect of a high-plus lens.
18. What measurement represents monocular pupillary distance on a single-vision order?
19. How much should the segment height be adjusted to account for frame groove?
20. Which measurement gives the optical centre height?
21. Which piece of information must always be included in a patient file when taking a comprehensive medical and ocular health history?
22. Visual acuity for contact lens wear is best tested binocularly.
23. During an ocular dominance test, the patient says that the object moves when the right eye is closed. What does this mean?
24. Given the Rx in the picture, if a patient already has distance eyeglasses, premade reading glasses will be effective for correcting near vision.
25. A well-adjusted frame sits so that the bottom edge of the nosepad carries the weight on the patient’s nose.
26. Eyeglasses can slide even when nosepad angles are correct and when the frame is adjusted properly.
27. When frames are properly positioned, where should a temple bend occur?
28. What is the traditionally recommended equilibration time for soft contact lenses?
29. What is adequate movement for tear exchange on a silicone hydrogel contact lens?
30. If a patient achieves 20/20 OD and 20/25 OS monocular visual acuity and 20/20 binocular visual acuity during a contact lens assessment, which next step is most appropriate?
31. What is the name of the thin, mesh-like portion of the sclera at the base of the optic disc through which the retinal nerve fibres leave the eye to form the optic nerve?
32. What is the name of the transparent, colourless liquid that fills the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye?
33. What is the term for a sensory cell that uses a chemical process to turn light into electrical energy?
34. What type of glaucoma occurs when patients who have narrow anterior chamber angles experience a sudden rise in intra-ocular pressure?
35. Metabolic disturbances of the crystalline lens, such as those that occur in patients with diabetes, can cause the development of cataracts.
36. What condition is associated with loss of peripheral vision and the sensation of looking down a tunnel?
37. Nominal power is an accurate measure of power for what type of lens?
38. When correctly transposed, what does −1.00 +2.00 × 080 become?
39. Which lens has the least chromatic aberration?
40. Which correction might assist with successfully fitting a patient with aniseikonia?
41. Carbon fibre frames require heating prior to adjustment.
42. What is the best solution for a patient whose prescriber recommends prism, there is no change to their Rx, and they are satisfied with their existing eyeglasses?
43. How should a patient be instructed to remove a soft contact lens?
44. What substance should be used to clean a contact lens case every day?
45. How often should a contact lens case be replaced?
46. What is the name of the instrument in the picture?
47. If a patient’s mean set of K readings are recorded as 44.00 D, this would be considered a flat cornea requiring a flat base curve for a soft contact lens fitting.
48. What contact lens disinfection system is most effective at killing major ocular pathogens?
49. What type of fluorescein pattern is shown in the photograph?
50. A patient wearing soft contact lenses reports lower-lid sensation and fluctuating visual acuity when blinking. What type of fitting is the patient describing?
51. What is the name of the instrument in the photograph?
52. What is the alternating cover test used for?
53. Which of the following statements about how a myopic patient’s binocularity can be affected while wearing contact lenses is true?
54. A spectacle correction for aphakia will result in an increase in field of view for the patient.
55. Which of the following conditions is the most common cause of low vision?
56. Which of the following conditions causes blurred vision, tearing and blinking?
57. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause fluctuating, blurred vision and frequent Rx changes?
58. A patient asks to be fitted for RGP contact lenses, stating that she has heard that her vision will be more stable with them. Upon questioning, she reports that she has fluctuating poor vision and a family history of diabetes. What is the optician’s most appropriate course of action?
59. This photograph shows the eyelid margins as viewed through a slit-lamp during an ocular health evaluation. Which condition is visible?
60. The dominant eye of a myopic patient is the one that requires the least plus for a patient to detect blur at a distance under binocular conditions.
61. What method of slit-lamp illumination is shown in the diagram?
62. What physiological condition is shown in the photograph?
63. What test is being performed in the photograph?
64. What test is being performed in the photograph?
65. A patient returns for a contact lens follow-up visit. Her recorded visual acuity 3 months ago was 20/20 binocularly but now it is 20/30. What is the most likely cause of the change?
66. Symptoms of a vitamin A deficiency include night blindness and conjunctival and corneal dryness.
67. Birth control pills frequently affect contact lens tolerance, causing hazy vision and reduced wearing time.
68. Accommodative amplitude depends on the patient’s age, so age is a guiding factor in the add power determination.
69. While performing refraction on a high myope, the optician finds that visual acuity cannot be corrected to standard levels. Why is it necessary to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist?
70. An optician is seeing a 40-year-old patient for the first time. The patient’s Rx includes both distance and reading powers. In assessing the patient’s visual needs, which of the following is best for starting the conversation?
71. A patient provides the following Rx:
OD plano −0.75 × 175
OS −2.75 –1.00 × 5
Add +1.50 OU
What special instruction should the optician provide to the lab when placing the lens order?
72. A patient’s Rx is
OD plano
OS −3.00
Which lenses would be most appropriate for this patient?
73. A patient’s Rx is:
OD −5.00
OS −5.75
Which of the following frames would give the patient the thinnest, lightest-weight lenses?
74. A patient in her 60s has very thin, pressure-sensitive nasal skin. In selecting lens materials, which of the following properties will the optician consider most?
75. A patient’s Rx is +14.50 OU. Which of the following lens designs should the optician recommend?
76. A 50-year-old plumber requires a +2.50 add for near point. At which of the following distances might his vision be compromised when using a standard multifocal lens?
77. A new patient is a first-time progressive lens wearer who had previously worn standard flat-top 35 mm trifocals. This patient will have to turn his head more to focus on objects in the nasal and temporal areas than he had to do with the flat-top trifocals.
78. The instrument below is used to measure the vertex distance of the frame a patient has selected for her new eyeglasses. The measurement reads 10 mm. What should be recorded as the final vertex measurement?
79. A patient has selected a frame for her new Rx multifocal lenses. The optician is ready to write the order. Which of the following actions should be performed before taking lens measurements?
80. While using the penlight and ruler method to take the monocular pupillary distance measurement, the penlight should be placed beside the optician’s right eye regardless of which of the patient’s eyes is being measured.
81. When refining a patient’s cylinder correction using a phoropter, if the patient doesn’t respond quickly when saying which lens power is better, ambient light and glare will skew the result.
82. To observe the movement of the ocular muscles, the refracting optician should perform which of the following tests?
83. Which of the following may be used to determine whether reduced visual acuity is due to refractive error or pathology?
84. The results of field testing reveal that a 64-year-old patient has reduced peripheral vision. Which of the following pathologies may be the cause of this problem?
85. Before performing refraction, the optician enquires about the patient’s chief complaint. The patient describes a periodic shimmering or glowing effect in his peripheral vision. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this symptom?
86. This picture represents how a patient would see an Amsler grid if she was suffering from which of the following conditions?
87. Which of the following best describes how to evaluate whether a low-vision patient will be able to adapt to using a hand-held magnifier?
88. On what areas should the initial assessment focus for a low-vision patient?
89. The equipment pictured is used in contact lens fitting to refine the lens power.
90. After getting new eyeglasses, a patient complains that his vision is not as good with the new pair as with the old pair. The prescriptions are the same and power, axis and pupillary distance have been verified as accurate. To investigate the most probable cause of the problem, which instrument should the optician use?
91. If a patient’s Rx (OD −2.50 D, OS −2.75 D) notes a refracting vertex of 12 mm but the selected frames sit at a vertex distance of 10 mm, what power correction is needed to compensate for the changed vertex?
92. A patient from another city arrives at the office wishing to have his eyeglasses duplicated as quickly as possible because they are scratched. When taking a lensometer reading from the eyeglasses, the optician finds that the crosshairs of the target sit off-centre, regardless of the position of the lenses in the lensometer. How should the optician determine the amount of prism present in the Rx?
93. Assuming no anomalies of refraction and no pathology is present, when a person focuses on a specific object at a specific distance from the eye the accommodative process will cause the crystalline lens to produce a consistently clear image.
94. Snow blindness is a condition in which the eye receives an unusually high amount of ultraviolet radiation. What symptom(s) would a patient with snow blindness report?
95. What condition puts adults at a higher risk of open-angle glaucoma?
96. In tracking and recording peripheral vision, which of the following describes confrontational testing?
97. Considering safety and durability, which material is best for a frame that uses drill-mounted lenses?
98. What is the main disadvantage of Optyl as a frame material?
99. What type of lens would be best for a presbyopic patient who works as an electrician?
100. Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for macular degeneration. What is another risk factor?